No, it does not. But let us be clear, everyone who trusts in Jesus for salvation will certainly be saved.

The verse in question (1 John 2:2) is this: "He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world."

I offer the following comments:

World.  The Greek word “world” (Greek word is kosmos, obviously where we get the word “cosmos”) in 2 Cor 5:19  and 1 John 2:2 does not always mean the whole world.  This must be determined by context.  For example, Hebrews 11:7 says Noah condemned the “world”—but clearly he did not condemn himself along with the rest of the world, so “world” here is not absolutely everyone.  1 John 3:1 says the “world” does not know us, because it did not know God—but clearly some of the people in the world do know God, so “world” here is also not universal.  1 John 5:19 says the “whole world” lies in the power of the evil one—but the very same verse says we are from God, so clearly we are not in the power of the evil one, so “world” here also does not mean universally everyone.

As for what “world” means in verses that are sometimes advanced in favor of unlimited atonement:

Another verse. 2 Cor. 5:19, in Christ God was “reconciling the world to himself”:  When the Bible speaks of being “reconciled to God” it means being made at peace with God (the word is also used to speak of a husband and wife being reconciled, 1 Cor 7:11).  God has not made peace with people who remain unbelievers all their lives—they remain his enemies—so “world” here cannot include unbelievers.  For that matter, if God already reconciled the whole world to himself, including all unbelievers, then there would be no reason for Paul to say in 2 Cor 5:20, “we beg you on behalf of Christ, be reconciled to God.”  I know of no other available definition of “reconcile” that does not have this problem.  And we and the "Arminians" (who hold to universal atonement, opposing "Calvinists" and their "five points," which include limited atonement) agree that not everyone is saved, so the verse can’t mean all people universally are saved.  Therefore, the word “world” must mean only part of the world, not all of it.  Now we look at the context, and we see that Paul is talking about people who are “in Christ” (5:17).  So this could be a figure of speech in which the whole is used to represent a part—as in the verses above, where “world” can be used to speak of only unbelievers. It is conceivable that “world” could be used here to refer collectively to all the people in the world on whom God has set his saving love and has actually saved, meaning the same people who put their faith in Christ.

The verse at issue. 1 John 2:2, "He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world":  Because of the verse we just discussed, it is possible that here as well the “world” refers to the world of believers.  In this case, “ours” does not mean all believers, then, but it could refer to just John and his immediate audience. That is, Jesus is the atoning sacrifice for you and I, as well as everyone else in the world who seeks forgiveness in Christ.

A general problem for the unlimited atonement position. But let’s be clear, these verses both seem to be cases when the Arminian finds a verse that says something to the effect of “Jesus ... make salvation available for ... everyone.”  To make these verses (and similar verse) say that, they force the “everyone” to be universal.  But the verses really say something more like “Jesus ... saves(/reconciles to God/is the propitiation for/atones for/gives light to/etc.) ... many people.”  Consequently, they force “many people” to mean “all people universally.  But then the verses would say “Jesus saves everyone,” which the Arminian knows is not true.  So the Arminian then is forced to change words that mean salvation (saves/reconciles to God/is the propitiation for/atones for/gives light to/etc.) into something other than salvation.  And the Arminian is then left with no words at all that mean actual salvation.  My challenge to the Arminian on this point is to name any word in the New Testament that actually means “save,” as in “He will save his people from their sins.” And then see whether there are verses saying Jesus does that for everyone, and see whether you come around to the interpretation I have described above.

Thank you Mr.opinionated

Can you please explain the following challenge;

My challenge to the Arminian on this point is to name any word in the New Testament that actually means “save,” as in “He will save his people from their sins.” And then see whether there are verses saying Jesus does that for everyone, and see whether you come around to the interpretation I have described above.

• Arminians would counter that salvation is indeed offered to all and that the saving work of Jesus provides a genuine opportunity for all to be saved, though only those who believe will be saved.